Q Number 12
Posted byPhilbrick shows that the English, as well as the American Indians, engaged in barbaric practices like torturing and mutilating their captives, as well as taking body parts as souvenirs. Could either side in King Philip’s War make any legitimate claim to moral superiority? Why or why not?
There is asolutely, positively no possible way that either side in King Phillip's War could claim moral superiority.
Period.
One could say that the Pilgrims were morally superior, what with them being spiritual and all that. That they were only in this war because they were defending themselves from the mean Indians who were killing their cows. But the Pilgrims were just as blamworthy as the Native Americans. Where the natives scalped their victims, the English cut off their victims heads and put them on pikes for everyone to see. Where the natives took captives (sometimes) and seperated families, the English led a mass genocide against all Natives, whether they wanted to fight or not. And, if you think about it, the Native Americans were also just defending themselves. In war, there is never such a thing as moral superiority.


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